Post by A***@gmail.comAssuming that the universe IS consistent and determinable,
1. precedence means that you can build on previous knowledge,
like we do in science, instead of wasting resources re-inventing
the wheel;
2. res judicata, time limits ...etc. which close off a dispute.
Statements #1 and #2 do not have anything to do with one
another. They consequently cannot not and do not logically
contradict one another. And especially when subjected to any
reasonable interpretation insofar as the common law and common law and
code related legal systems are concerned in particular, they are not
even remotely factually inconsistent
For one who has the intellectual and economic means to
undertake scientific research and to do related work where there is
not a governmental prohibition against or governmentally enabled
prevention of and not someone in some credibly coercive manner
preventing so doing, there will not be a closing off of further such
research and work that would prevent devising and trying to build
variations of rather than having to re-invent the proverbial wheel.
Instead, a comparatively very well established scientific custom and
practice is not to close off scientific research and to encourage
scientifically significant off-shoots of a previously invented wheel.
In contrast, a key premise of statement #2, which you mention
but evidently do not understand or anywhere sufficiently appreciate,
or which you pretend not to understand, is that principles of res
judicata and of collateral estoppel, etc., and law prescribed time
limits in what presumably are the legal systems of interest to you
have the functional and, hence, practical purpose in the interests of
justice and effective judicial administration of referring to
different litigation related scenarios in which opportunities for
litigation by the affected parties can and may and will be closed off
or, as the case may be, not be closed off if there are facts and
related principles of law that provide a legitimate basis to reject
claims to the effect res judicata or collateral estoppel or some
asserted bar by reason of the passage of time, etc., do not apply so
as to close off litigation.
In other words, as distinguished from what if any 'universal'
principles may apply elsewhere or for other purposes in the universe,
for the purpose of human legal systems your combining as if logically
and factually relevant premises your two numbered statements above is
an exercise as helpful as would be trying to analyze the 'universal'
applicability or not of the by now classic parody of an assertedly
Given Truth that a woman without a man is like a fish without a
bicycle or you purporting to infer from the fact that today I have a
yellow handkerchief in my jacket pocket what the prevailing price of
turnips will be tomorrow in China.
But, then, maybe for you it is a definite maybe that verbal
combinations like 'Jumbo Shrimp' or 'military intelligence' or 'pretty
ugly' convey information that help establish that the universe IS
consistent and determinable.
Post by A***@gmail.comBut what happens if <res judicata, time limits ...etc.> has
'found' a fact that contradicts a findable fact of a different
dispute?
This would depend on you at least fact specifically and
honestly answering these questions:
To what if any extent by 'different dispute' do you refer to
different parties than those who were party to the lawsuit to which
principles of res judicata, time limits, etc., apply and also to
disputes between or among those different parties that arise from
different transactions and occurrences and related claims than those
at issue and which were determined by the lawsuit to which principles
of res judicata, time limits, etc., apply?
To what if any extent does your use of the phrase 'different
dispute' refer instead merely or mostly to an effort by a party to a
finally determined lawsuit in which that party participated or to an
effort by an individual or business entity of some kind in privity
with that party to re-label as 'new' and 'different' what, in
actuality, is the same or basically the same dispute that was at issue
in that now concluded lawsuit so as to try to relitigate already
finally judicially determined claims of fact and of law as against the
other party to the concluded lawsuit or as against an individual or
some sort of business entity in privity with that other party?
Post by A***@gmail.comDo the Courts say "for the purpose of Case-A it's found that
2+3 NOT-equals 5"[ a]nd for the purpose of Case-B it's found
that 2+3 IS-equals 5"?
Generally, No, and correctly so, for party1 if party1 was a
party to and participated in the Case-A lawsuit by or against party2
if Case-B arises from the same or essentially the same transactions
and occurrences that were at issue in finally determined Case-A.
Insofar as a fact, as such and as distinguished from a
principle of law is concerned, not infrequently, Yes in respect of
party3 and party4 litigating in Case-B if they are not alter egos of
or otherwise in privity with party1 and party2 to Case-A and/or if the
transactions and occurrences resulting in Case-A were materially
different from those at issue in Case-B.
Insofar as principles of law are concerned that are invoked or
contested by party4 or party5 who/which, respectively, are unrelated
to party1 and to party2, possibly (and correctly), Yes, and possibly
(and correctly), No, depending on what those principles of law are
said to be and on the particular nature of the transactions and
occurrences that resulted in the not consensually resolved claims
being determined in Case-B.
By the way or as the case may be maybe not by the way:
Saying that (in a base-10 number system) 2+2=4 is less a
'fact' than a mathematical principle tantamount to an arithmetic
definition especially as compared with and distinguished from whether
it is a 'fact' that, 'The cat depicted in this photograph died last
week' or the facts that defendant1 was given a sum of money by
plaintiff1 in exchange for defendan11 saying to plaintiff1, 'This is a
loan which I agree to and will repay to you next Monday' or the fact
that at approximately 3 p.m. yesterday in Paris, France, defendant2
punched plaintiff2 in the nose; etc.; and while importantly
influenced by whether, in fact, defendant1 said to plaintiff1, 'This
is a loan which I agree to and will repay to you next Monday' and by
whether plaintiff1 then handed the sum of money referred to in
exchange, saying that such a transaction considered as a whole is a
'loan' is mostly to express a principle of law.
Post by A***@gmail.comWhere would I find some pointers to on-line explanations
of this topic?
Some good sources would be for you to search and read news
group responses to someone who has posted with the screen name 'Chris
Glur' or email addresses '***@absamail.co.za' or
'***@gmail.com' since many on-line explanations of these
issues which include many pointers provided to that person.
Other good sources would be reading a fair sampling of
especially appellate judicial opionions in the jurisdiction of
interest to you and in comparable jurisdictions that illustrate and
explain what is summarized above; obviously.
By the way, 'precedent' would be more preferable for your
purposes than the word you spell above as 'precedence'.